Just made the mistake of watching a "debate" between Holley on one side and Felger/Borges on the other, with Holley questioning the protocols for psi testing the balls before the AFCCG. It got all caught up on whether or not the refs did make notes of, or should have made notes of, what the psi level of the patriots balls were, with Felger/Borges saying, essentially, that you don't need to write anything down "if all the balls are filled to 12.5."
But the thing that struck me is how all three of them glossed over or took as gospel that the refs "gauged the balls," clearly implying that the balls were measured pre-game WITH A GAUGE. The thing is, hasn't it been pretty well proven by (or at least can it be legitimately inferred from) the limited official NFL statements that the balls were not necessarily gauged with the actual apparatus they're supposed to use? Didn't we go over this on, like, page 65 or wherever of this thread? Because the NFL took pains to point out that the balls were checked WITH A GAUGE at halftime, but were not nearly so specific about how the balls were tested BEFORE the game. How is it that the media, even New England media, even guys like Holley who seem invested in what many of us see as the "right" side of this story, have somehow forgotten what is a fairly important detail of this admittedly murky tale?
Reading tea leaves in an even rudimentary way tells us that it's likely Anderson squeeze-tested the balls, no? Has that idea been debunked or am I getting it wrong or what? And if I'm not, how are THESE guys getting it wrong?
Edited because I am sloppy, but then compulsive in the aftermath.